Browse all practice questions for the Benchmark Clinical Judgment Exam (CJE) Practice Exam. Search by topic, open any question and review its full explanation, then test yourself in the practice quiz.

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  • In suspected spinal injury, what is the initial management step before imaging?
  • What is meningitis?
  • What is the primary risk associated with total parenteral nutrition?
  • Which finding requires immediate action when corticosteroids are rapidly tapered after adrenal surgery, suggesting Addisonian crisis?
  • Calcium channel blockers primarily achieve their therapeutic effect by which mechanism?
  • In a diabetic patient with suspected osteomyelitis and MRSA, what is a priority initial intervention?
  • What happens during a sickle cell crisis?
  • Which condition is a contraindication to giving a bolus due to risk of fluid volume overload?
  • What is the main goal of therapy for estrogen receptor–positive breast cancer?
  • What is intrarenal acute kidney injury?
  • After fluids in septic shock, what is the next step?
  • A client with heart failure presents with dyspnea, crackles, and +3 pitting edema. Which assessment finding indicates worsening fluid overload?
  • In acute kidney injury, which urine finding is commonly observed?
  • When do you administer a bolus?
  • Which lab finding best indicates rifampin hepatotoxicity?
  • How do TIA symptoms compare to a stroke?
  • Which cooling method should be avoided during a sickle cell crisis due to vasoconstriction?
  • A client with iron-deficiency anemia has a swollen, red, burning tongue. Which lab confirms this diagnosis?
  • In ARDS management, which ventilator setting most directly improves oxygenation by keeping alveoli open?
  • Which statement correctly describes the role of H. pylori in peptic ulcer disease?
  • In a client in sickle cell crisis admitted with severe pain, what is the priority action?
  • Which combination of symptoms is commonly associated with metastatic bone cancer?
  • What is the purpose of proton pump inhibitors in peptic ulcer disease?
  • Why are we concerned with sugar levels in a patient with MRSA?
  • Which of the following is a hallmark lab finding in iron-deficiency anemia?
  • A patient with sepsis presents with BP 82/50, HR 120, and fever. What is the priority intervention?
  • Which statement best describes the relationship between metastatic bone cancer and calcium?
  • How long should a patient be kept upright after completing an enteral feeding to reduce aspiration risk?
  • Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of sickle cell crisis?
  • Why is meningitis dangerous?
  • Why do we give antibiotics for peptic ulcer disease?
  • Which procedure is used as the initial treatment for cardiac tamponade?
  • Which of the following is listed as a cause of meningitis?
  • A patient with a C6 spinal cord injury suddenly develops a pounding headache and a blood pressure of 220/110. What is the nurse's first priority?
  • Which laboratory pattern suggests hepatotoxicity from rifampin?
  • Which of the following is a common symptom of metastatic bone cancer?
  • When should the nurse question a prescription for tPA?
  • In a patient with elevated intracranial pressure, what does unilateral pupil dilation indicate?
  • Which of the following can cause meningitis?
  • Which statement accurately describes the Glasgow Coma Scale score 15?
  • Which antibiotic is commonly first-line for MRSA infections?
  • An ileostomy comes from which part of the digestive tract?
  • What is a priority monitoring parameter for a burn patient in the acute phase?
  • A patient with H. pylori–related gastric ulcer is prescribed amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole. What best explains the rationale for using three medications?
  • Which finding is the most important indicator that a steroid taper is too fast?
  • Which breathing pattern is commonly associated with COPD?
  • A client with end-stage renal failure has nausea, confusion, and Kussmaul respirations. What is the priority action?
  • An ischemic stroke patient presents with right-sided weakness and slurred speech, last known well at 0900 and evaluated at 1400. Which action is appropriate regarding tPA?
  • After sustaining a burn, the patient is at risk of developing which temperature-related condition?
  • What does hemodynamic status primarily assess?
  • Which of the following is a classic symptom of meningitis?
  • Why is a stoma created?
  • Long-term use of proton pump inhibitors is associated with which adverse effect?
  • In septic shock, fluids first, then cultures, antibiotics, oxygen. Which option shows the correct initial management sequence?
  • What best describes tension pneumothorax?
  • How long do TIA symptoms typically last?
  • Which finding is MOST suggestive of a pulmonary embolism?
  • A postop patient on PCA morphine is difficult to arouse and has RR 8/min. What is the nurse's priority?
  • Why is enteral nutrition used in patients with cancer?
  • Which of the following is a sign associated with right-sided heart failure?
  • Which condition can cause prerenal AKI due to decreased kidney perfusion?
  • Which assessment finding indicates worsening acidosis?
  • Which action is last in the initial septic shock management sequence?
  • Which action is identified as a nursing priority to reduce sickling?
  • A client with Crohn's disease has an ileostomy pouch with 1750 mL urine output. What is the nurse's first priority?
  • During chemotherapy, if infection becomes present, which hematologic condition commonly develops?
  • A patient has potassium level 6.8 mEq/L. Which medication should the nurse anticipate?
  • What is metastatic bone cancer?
  • A bolus is often given prior to administering which of the following to address potential life-threatening issues?
  • Rifampin hepatotoxicity is suggested by which laboratory finding?
  • Which labs are important to check for a patient with renal calculi?
  • A patient on total parenteral nutrition who is sweating, anxious, and tachycardic. The nurse should check first?
  • A client with metastatic bone cancer is receiving enteral feedings. Which gastric residual value would prompt you to hold the feeding?
  • Which is an early sign of hypoxia?
  • Which statement describes a TIA?
  • What is the rationale for hydration in a sickle cell crisis?
  • What is prerenal acute kidney injury?
  • End-stage renal failure is defined as kidneys failing with how much function remaining?
  • A patient with COPD is very drowsy, RR 10, O2 sat 86% on 2 L NC. What is the priority action?
  • Which combination represents the classic symptoms of meningitis?
  • What is renal calculi?
  • What is cardiac tamponade?
  • What happens when a patient has acute kidney injury?
  • What is peptic ulcer disease?
  • Why do we give proton pump inhibitors for a peptic ulcer disease?
  • What is post renal, acute kidney injury?
  • AKI affects which kidney functions?
  • Which of the following is NOT an example of intrarenal AKI?
  • Which vent setting improves oxygenation in ARDS?
  • Which symptom is most characteristic of a pulmonary embolism?
  • Which of the following is a sign of carbon dioxide retention in COPD?
  • Which condition would most likely cause postrenal AKI?
  • Which ECG finding is most concerning in a patient with potassium level 6.5 mEq/L?
  • Which of the following is NOT a trigger of a sickle cell crisis?
  • Which infection-control measure is appropriate for neutropenia?
  • Treatment for peptic ulcer disease?
  • Which of the following is NOT an example of prerenal acute kidney injury?
  • What is the primary acid-base disturbance seen in end-stage renal failure?
  • Polystyrene sulfonate is used to treat hyperkalemia; its effectiveness is indicated by which change in potassium?
  • Which of the following is listed as a cause of heart failure?
  • Types of stomas in colorectal cancer?
  • Which finding in a patient with diabetes most strongly suggests diabetic ketoacidosis?
  • In an Addisonian crisis, what is the most important immediate treatment?
  • In end-stage renal failure with metabolic acidosis, which laboratory finding is typical?
  • Which lab value is expected in acute kidney injury?
  • An older adult fell and hit his head and is awake and oriented. Which medication makes the nurse most concerned about possible intracranial bleed?
  • A client on rifampin for TB reports fatigue and dark urine. Which lab finding is most concerning?
  • A burn patient is at high risk for which condition?
  • A patient with COPD is most at risk for which complication due to impaired elimination of carbon dioxide?
  • If hypothermia is not treated in a burn patient, which complication may occur?
  • Which measure helps prevent aspiration during enteral feeding?
  • What is the typical starting oxygen flow for a COPD patient unless otherwise directed by a provider?
  • Which of the following is an infection-control measure for neutropenia?
  • Which of the following is a cause of myocardial infarction?
  • Which of the following is NOT a sign of carbon dioxide retention in COPD?
  • Urinalysis in renal calculi typically looks for which findings?
  • In electrical burn injuries, how do the depth and extent of tissue damage typically compare to the external appearance?
  • Which finding is most consistent with right-sided heart failure in a COPD patient?
  • When should the enteral feeding tube be flushed?
  • Which statement best describes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
  • Dehydration is known to worsen sickle cell crisis. Which statement best reflects this relationship?
  • Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening emergency in patients with spinal cord injury at or above which level?
  • Which fluid is recommended as an initial resuscitation fluid for suspected ruptured appendix?
  • During evaluation of a hyperkalemic patient receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (kayexalate), which result indicates the drug is working?
  • For a patient in sickle cell crisis with dehydration and severe generalized pain, what is the priority nursing intervention?
  • In a patient with potassium level 6.5 mEq/L, what is the most urgent clinical concern?
  • Which practice is part of preventing aspiration during enteral feeding?
  • A patient suddenly becomes tachypneic and anxious, complaining of sharp chest pain. What is the priority action?
  • Which finding is most consistent with septic shock?
  • Which temperature-related instruction is correct for preventing a sickle cell crisis?
  • What is the main drug used for estrogen receptor–positive breast cancer?
  • A chest tube suddenly stops draining. The nurse should check first?
  • Which electrolyte disturbance is common in acute kidney injury?
  • For a patient with a displaced cervical spine fracture (C8), what is the first priority?
  • Which factor contributes to impaired thermoregulation after a burn?
  • Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor that is commonly included in H. pylori eradication therapy?
  • Which of the following is an example of postrenal AKI?
  • Burn patients can develop overheating due to impaired sweating. Which condition would this predispose to?
  • Which action is not recommended as part of maintaining normothermia in burn care?
  • Which statement correctly describes a colostomy?
  • In end-stage renal disease with metabolic acidosis, what is the pH status?
  • Which physical sign is associated with metabolic acidosis in ESRD?
  • Which of the following is considered a classic symptom of COPD?
  • Which color change indicates stoma necrosis and requires contacting the healthcare provider?
  • What is the normal daily urine output range for an adult?
  • A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor. Which administration instruction is correct?
  • Which cardiovascular complication is most concerning after an electrical burn?
  • Which symptom/finding is typical of metastatic bone cancer affecting bones?
  • Which of the following is a sign of hypothermia in a burn patient?
  • Which statement about ileostomy output is correct?
  • Which description best describes a normal stoma appearance?
  • Which respiratory pattern is most often associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?
  • Before feeding a patient through an enteral tube, which procedure is typically performed to confirm placement?
  • What is estrogen receptor–positive breast cancer?
  • Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia. Which lab change indicates it is effective?
  • Which measure helps prevent hypothermia in burn patients?
  • A patient on proton pump inhibitors should report which symptom?
  • In sickle cell crisis, hydration helps by reducing what property of blood?
  • Calcium channel blockers are primarily used to treat which condition by relaxing blood vessels and slowing the heart rate?
  • Which of the following is a recognized risk factor for heart failure?
  • Which of the following is a key component of enteral feeding assessment during care?
  • What is a priority intervention for a patient with a ruptured appendix?
  • Interpreting the Glasgow Coma Scale, which statement is true?
  • End-stage renal failure is characterized by remaining kidney function left at what percentage?
  • What is meningitis?
  • Hypercapnia refers to an excess of which gas in the blood?
  • What is acute kidney injury?
  • Which scenario best suggests a line infection in a patient receiving TPN?
  • What primarily causes metabolic acidosis in end-stage renal failure?
  • What is the immediate nursing action when a patient on PCA morphine has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute?
  • Which finding indicates a complication of Total Parenteral Nutrition?
  • What is neutropenia?
  • Which statement would prompt questioning a tPA prescription?
  • Which organism is associated with peptic ulcer disease?
  • How is neutropenia defined?
  • Which statement best describes a bleeding stoma as a normal finding?
  • The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess what aspect of a patient?
  • A client with a new ileostomy has urine output of 1750 mL in 24 hours. What is priority action?
  • Which burn depths are associated with thermoregulation impairment?
  • Metastatic bone cancer can lead to elevated calcium levels. Which option best describes this metabolic change?
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